You realize "all right" -> "alright" was around the end of the 19th century, right? Not the 17th, as per Milton. Nor the early 19th.But what period? And accurate in what way? This isn't old English we're speaking. If that were true, the first thing that would need to change is that all our 's' letters would need to be altered to 'f' - that's something that only really happened at the beginning of the 19th Century.
And even then, I'm sure there are some obvious technical reasons there.
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