A follow-up question on the grammar itself – my grasp of the archaic syntax is mostly influenced by long-distant German lessons in high school (not a native speaker at all) but my understanding from those is that you don't often use "do" as a secondary verb the way English does, and this sticks around to some degree in constructs like "what say you?" over "what do you say?"

So should "doth" be in there at all or should it be more in the line of "he appeareth untempered"? Or do you need "doth" to support the past tense?