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  1. #5
    Player
    Shibi's Avatar
    Join Date
    Aug 2013
    Posts
    2,756
    Character
    Lala Felon
    World
    Zurvan
    Main Class
    Gunbreaker Lv 80
    Quote Originally Posted by Breakbeat View Post
    As for the grammar, in my layman's understanding of old English, 'doth' is a third-person singular form of 'do': "he/she/it does" = "he/she/it doth"..
    It's not Old English, it's Early Modern English.

    This is Old English;

    Hwæt. We Gardena in geardagum,
    þeodcyninga, þrym gefrunon,
    hu ða æþelingas ellen fremedon.
    Beowulf Circa 975-1025

    Quote Originally Posted by Iscah View Post
    So should "doth" be in there at all or should it be more in the line of "he appeareth untempered"? Or do you need "doth" to support the past tense?
    Not past tense. Present. 'Doth' is an auxiliary verb in the present tense, with appear being the verb it relates to. So "doth not appear" is "doesn't appear at this moment in time".

    'Appeareth' is a simple present indicative verb and could be valid as well. It's heavily used in the KJV Bible. But as you write it it would seem to me to read "he appears before us, untempered", based on the KJV "the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream"

    However, Koji oft follows Shakespeare when using Archaic/Early Modern English words. And the Bard writes thus;

    When it is paid according to the tenor.
    It doth appear you are a worthy judge;
    You know the law, your exposition
    Hath been most sound: I charge you by the law,
    Whereof you are a well-deserving pillar,
    Proceed to judgment: by my soul I swear
    There is no power in the tongue of man
    To alter me: I stay here on my bond.
    Merchant of Venice - Scene 4 Act 1
    (4)
    Last edited by Shibi; 02-18-2022 at 05:14 PM. Reason: changed would to could... simple indicitive doesn't need a time anchor.