You can't "lock" something that doesn't exist.

[ParaKnox]

So was Yoshida wrong when he said he didn't like gender locking so he made sure male Miqote and female Roadagyn were made?

[Lacan]

So was Yoshida wrong when he said he didn't like gender locking so he made sure male Miqote and female Roadagyn were made?

Yea, I didn't even think of that. Hasn't Yoshi used the term himself? :v Are you gonna tell him he's using it wrong too OP?

[Lihtleita]

Yea, I didn't even think of that. Hasn't Yoshi used the term himself? :v Are you gonna tell him he's using it wrong too OP?

oooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooohhhhhhh

[Joven]

Yea, I didn't even think of that. Hasn't Yoshi used the term himself? :v Are you gonna tell him he's using it wrong too OP?

OP hasn't posted in a while so I'll take the pass: If neither one of them were present in 1.0 in any form i.e. NPCs then yes, he's using the term wrong because they weren't available to be locked.

[Joven]

Merlwyb was in 1.0

There was a male miqo. (If im not remembering wrong)

If that's the case then they were available, so they would be considered locked.

[Fayt1203]

So was Yoshida wrong when he said he didn't like gender locking so he made sure male Miqote and female Roadagyn were made?

can people put link of the article when he said that, I haven't find any interview at moment where he says that. In the last Interview he said that he added the male Miqo'te and female Roegadyn to fill a void that was present before launch

[Kaedan]

So was Yoshida wrong when he said he didn't like gender locking so he made sure male Miqote and female Roadagyn were made?

The chances of Yoshida saying "gender locking" are about 0.000001%.

Why? Because he doesn't speak English. At least not enough to make that statement in English.

So what does that mean? It means it's a translation by someone, which means Yoshida didn't use those express words.

Now, personally I think semantics arguments are boring and useless, so I don't really care one way or the other if "genderlocking" is being misused. But I do care about false claims, which is why I'm correcting this one.

[Lacan]

The chances of Yoshida saying "gender locking" are about 0.000001%.

Why? Because he doesn't speak English. At least not enough to make that statement in English.

So what does that mean? It means it's a translation by someone, which means Yoshida didn't use those express words.

Now, personally I think semantics arguments are boring and useless, so I don't really care one way or the other if "genderlocking" is being misused. But I do care about false claims, which is why I'm correcting this one.

If the best translation of what he's saying is "genderlock" then isn't that pretty much what he is saying? Or are you saying you know better than the translators?

[Kaedan]

If the best translation of what he's saying is "genderlock" then isn't that pretty much what he is saying? Or are you saying you know better than the translators?

1) No, it is not. The entire point of the post is the use of the ENGLISH WORD "genderlock" (and how the OP thinks it's being misused). The OP makes an ENGLISH semantics argument. Therefore, it's impossible that Yoshida could have "used genderlock wrong" because he would never use the word genderlock.

2) I would have to look at the Japanese actually used to confirm, but I guarantee it wasn't a single word he used. Likely he said something like, "I wasn't happy that Miqote and Roegadyn were missing genders". There's no word in Japanese for "genderlock".

3) Yes, I'm fluent in Japanese. At the very least I know that there is not a word in Japanese for "genderlock".